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My payment should be 0 if my income is 0 in the USA, and I make less than $30,000 in another currency and country?
| Poll: What do you think? Total Votes: 0 |
|
|---|---|
| Yes, it’s true if your income is 0 in the US. | 0  |
| No, it’s not true, you have to pay because you have an income. | 0 |
| Consult with a lawyer. | 0 |
| Consult with a tax expert. | 0 |
I had a agent confirm this once, but I’m not sure it’s true.
Let’s iassume it’s true, so how to prove you income in the US is 0?
Easy, file US taxes, right? Then, submit that tax return to the loan office.
Then submit those taxes to the loan office.
As far as I know this is related to being under $90,000 in income while working in another country, right?
Or,
If it’s not true—
The problem I’m facing is the loan company will turn to a default $100.00 a month payment instead of the $40.00 they where charging me. This is kind of unfair because the currency I’m getting paid in is less than the USD (excluding fees). Thus, after conversions, I am making less or equal to what I was making in the US. I was told to show currency conversions, but they default me to the 100.00 payment anyway. If IBR is based on my income, then if I’m making less money working abroad, shouldn’t they be charging me less then or equal to what they were charging me in the US?